Nursing Elites

1. A client is 12 hours postoperative and has a chest tube to a disposable water-seal drainage system with suction. The healthcare provider should intervene for which of the following observations?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber
• B. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• C. Bloody drainage in the collection chamber
• D. Fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak, which can compromise the system's integrity and affect the client's respiratory status. The other options are expected findings in a client with a chest tube drainage system: constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber indicates proper suction function, bloody drainage in the collection chamber is expected in the immediate postoperative period, and fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber demonstrate normal drainage and lung re-expansion.

2. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

3. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?

• A. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count: 82,000/µL
• C. RBC count: 4.8 x 10^6/µL
• D. WBC count: 8.7 x 10^3/µL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.

5. A college health nurse interprets the peak expiratory flow rate for a student who has asthma and finds that the student is in the yellow zone of his asthma action plan. The nurse should not base her actions on which of the following information?

• A. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
• B. The student's asthma is not well controlled.
• C. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
• D. The student needs to go to the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In an asthma action plan, the yellow zone indicates caution and signals a need to monitor symptoms closely. When a student is in the yellow zone, the appropriate action is to follow the prescribed steps, which typically include using a quick-relief inhaler and closely monitoring peak flow. Going to the hospital is usually reserved for severe asthma exacerbations in the red zone. Therefore, the information that the student needs to go to the hospital is not typically appropriate when the student is in the yellow zone.

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