endocrinology exam Endocrinology Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Endocrinology Exam

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

2. To obtain a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter, the nurse begins by applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port. What does the nurse do next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After clamping the drainage tubing, the next step in obtaining a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter is to clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution. This cleaning step helps prevent contamination of the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube isn't necessary and may not be a standard practice. Inserting a syringe into the injection port to aspirate urine isn't the correct step at this point. Withdrawing 10 mL of urine and discarding it before collecting the sample isn't appropriate and may lead to an inaccurate sample.

3. While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. The client's respiratory rate is 33 breaths/min and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of a potential transfusion reaction, indicated by an increased respiratory rate. The nurse's initial action should be to slow down the infusion rate of the packed red blood cells to prevent further complications. Administering diphenhydramine or stopping the infusion should not be the first actions taken, as the priority is to ensure the client's safety and prevent adverse reactions. Continuing to monitor vital signs without taking immediate action to address the increased respiratory rate would delay appropriate intervention.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client with epilepsy. Which precautions does the nurse implement to ensure the safety of the client while in the hospital? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with epilepsy, it is essential to avoid restraining them with strict bed rest as it can lead to complications like muscle atrophy, thrombosis, and pressure ulcers. Having suction equipment at the bedside is important in case of seizures to prevent aspiration. Keeping bed rails up can prevent falls during a seizure. Ensuring that the client has IV access is crucial for administering medications such as antiepileptic drugs or emergency medications if needed. Therefore, maintaining the client on strict bed rest is not a recommended precaution for a client with epilepsy.

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