a client who had a stroke combs her hair only on the right side of her head and washes only the right side of her face how does the nurse interpret th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Endocrinology Exam

1. How does the nurse interpret the client's actions of combing her hair only on the right side of her head and washing only the right side of her face after a stroke?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's selective grooming and washing habits indicate a condition known as 'unawareness of the existence of her left side,' also called hemispatial neglect. This condition is characterized by a lack of awareness or attention to one side of the body or space, typically the left side in stroke patients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the client's actions are not due to poor motor control, paralysis, contractures, or limited visual perception. Instead, they are indicative of a specific cognitive deficit related to neglecting one side of the body.

2. A female client with deteriorating neurologic function states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children."? How does the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses worry about not being able to care for her children due to deteriorating neurologic function, the most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information from the client. This open-ended approach allows the nurse to better understand the client's specific concerns and needs, leading to tailored interventions and support. Choice A is dismissive and may make the client feel guilty for needing help. Choice B focuses on external resources without addressing the client's worries directly. Choice C suggests a psychological referral without exploring the client's concerns further. Therefore, the correct response is to gather more information to provide personalized support.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

4. While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.

5. The nurse teaches a client who is newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which instruction does the nurse include to minimize complications of this disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to talk to their provider about medications to help quit smoking. Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease, and quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk of complications. Choice A is incorrect because exercise is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease, but should be started gradually and under guidance. Choice B is incorrect and inappropriate as it undermines the client's ability to take control of their health. Choice D is incorrect because while a balanced diet is important, specifically targeting carbohydrates alone may not be the most effective or healthy approach for managing coronary artery disease.

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