Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses distended neck veins in a client sitting in a chair to eat. What intervention is the nurse's priority?

• A. Document the observation in the chart.
• B. Measure urine specific gravity and volume.
• C. Assess the pulse and blood pressure.
• D. Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the pulse and blood pressure. Distended neck veins can indicate fluid volume overload or heart failure, which can lead to hemodynamic instability. Assessing the pulse and blood pressure will provide immediate information on the client's cardiovascular status. Documenting the observation in the chart (choice A) is important but not the priority when immediate assessment is needed. Measuring urine specific gravity and volume (choice B) is important for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's deep tendon reflexes (choice D) is not relevant to addressing distended neck veins in a client sitting to eat.

2. The nurse teaches a client who is newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which instruction does the nurse include to minimize complications of this disease?

• A. "Rest is the best medicine at this time. Do not start an exercise program."?
• B. "You are a man; therefore, there is nothing you can do to minimize your risks."?
• C. "You should talk to your provider about medications to help you quit smoking."?
• D. "Decreasing the carbohydrates in your diet will help you lose weight."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to talk to their provider about medications to help quit smoking. Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease, and quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk of complications. Choice A is incorrect because exercise is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease, but should be started gradually and under guidance. Choice B is incorrect and inappropriate as it undermines the client's ability to take control of their health. Choice D is incorrect because while a balanced diet is important, specifically targeting carbohydrates alone may not be the most effective or healthy approach for managing coronary artery disease.

3. What intervention is most important to teach the client about identifying the onset of dehydration?

• A. Measuring abdominal girth
• B. Converting ounces to milliliters
• C. Obtaining and charting daily weight
• D. Selecting food items with high water content

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtaining and charting daily weight. Monitoring daily weight is crucial in identifying the onset of dehydration as weight loss can be an early sign. Measuring abdominal girth (choice A) is not the most reliable method for detecting dehydration. Converting ounces to milliliters (choice B) and selecting food items with high water content (choice D) may be important for overall hydration but are not the most critical interventions for identifying the onset of dehydration.

4. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?

• A. Absence of pedal edema in the lower legs.
• B. Absence of complaints of sexual dysfunction.
• C. No indication of renal impairment.
• D. Blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
• D. Positive pregnancy test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

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