ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is preparing to provide medication instruction for a patient. Which of the following understandings about anxiety will be essential to effective instruction?
- A. Learning is best when anxiety is moderate to severe.
- B. Learning is enhanced when anxiety is mild.
- C. Panic-level anxiety helps the provider teach better.
- D. Severe anxiety is characterized by intense concentration and enhances the attention span.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mild anxiety sharpens the senses, increases the perceptual field, and results in heightened awareness of the environment, which enhances learning. As anxiety increases, attention span decreases, making learning more difficult. Therefore, mild anxiety is more conducive to effective instruction compared to moderate to severe anxiety, panic-level anxiety, or severe anxiety. Choice A is incorrect because moderate to severe anxiety impairs learning. Choice C is incorrect as panic-level anxiety can be overwhelming and hinder the learning process. Choice D is incorrect because severe anxiety typically leads to impaired attention span rather than enhancing it.
2. A teenage boy is attracted to a female teacher. Without objective evidence, a school nurse overhears the boy state, 'I know she wants me.' This statement reflects which defense mechanism?
- A. Displacement
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Sublimation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. The nurse should determine that the client's statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Projection refers to the attribution of one's unacceptable feelings or impulses to another person. In this case, the boy is projecting his own desires onto the female teacher, believing that she wants him. By externalizing his feelings, the boy reduces his anxiety and discomfort about his own attraction. Displacement involves transferring emotions from one target to another, not attributing one's own feelings to others. Rationalization involves creating logical explanations for unacceptable behaviors, not projecting feelings onto others. Sublimation is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
3. During an assessment, a client is demonstrating symptoms of moderate anxiety. Which of the following symptoms would be indicative of moderate anxiety?
- A. Fidgeting
- B. Laughing inappropriately
- C. Palpitations
- D. Nail biting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Palpitations are a common physical symptom seen in clients experiencing moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting can also indicate heightened stress levels. It's important for healthcare providers to recognize these signs and provide appropriate support. While anxiety can manifest in various ways, other indicators of moderate anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. It's crucial for healthcare providers to assess these symptoms to provide effective care and interventions. Laughing inappropriately and nail biting are more commonly associated with nervousness or social discomfort, while fidgeting may signal mild anxiety.
4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
- B. Set strict limits on the amount of time the client can engage in compulsive behaviors.
- C. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed.
- D. Gradually limit the amount of time allotted for compulsive behaviors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with OCD, it is essential to gradually limit the time allotted for compulsive behaviors. This intervention helps the client develop alternative coping mechanisms. Encouraging suppression or setting strict limits on compulsive behaviors can exacerbate the client's anxiety, making it crucial to approach the care plan with a gradual reduction strategy. Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed does not promote progress towards managing OCD symptoms and may reinforce maladaptive patterns of behavior.
5. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?
- A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
- B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
- C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
- D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.
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