ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Hypertensive crisis
- D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.
2. How should the nurse respond to a 72-year-old patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who is skeptical about tamsulosin (Flomax) for symptom relief?
- A. “Flomax can increase the amount of urine your kidneys produce, resulting in better urine flow.”
- B. “Flomax can relax your prostate and your bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine.”
- C. “Flomax makes your urine less alkaline, reducing the irritation that makes your prostate swell.”
- D. “Flomax increases the strength of your bladder muscle and results in a stronger flow of urine.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is choice B because it explains the mechanism of action of Flomax, which helps the patient understand how the medication works. By stating that Flomax relaxes the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine, the nurse is addressing the patient's concerns about symptom relief. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about Flomax's mechanism of action and do not directly address the patient's skepticism or concerns.
3. During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:
- A. measuring serum potassium levels.
- B. monitoring for muscle rigidity.
- C. evaluating renal function.
- D. checking arterial blood gases.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.
4. A hospital patient's complex medical history includes a recent diagnosis of kidney cancer. Which of the following medications is used to treat metastatic kidney cancer?
- A. Filgrastim (Neupogen)
- B. Aldesleukin (Proleukin)
- C. Interferon alfa-2b (Intron A)
- D. Darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Aldesleukin (Proleukin). Aldesleukin is a medication used in the treatment of metastatic kidney cancer. It is a recombinant interleukin-2 that works by stimulating the immune system to attack cancer cells. Choice A, Filgrastim, is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells. Choice C, Interferon alfa-2b, is used in the treatment of certain cancers but not specifically metastatic kidney cancer. Choice D, Darbepoetin alfa, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production and is not indicated for metastatic kidney cancer.
5. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Assess for pain.
- B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
- C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
- D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.
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