ati pathophysiology final exam ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient presents with a rash from poison ivy. The nurse knows that this is which type of hypersensitivity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A rash from poison ivy is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed cell-mediated immune responses involving T cells. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed onset, typically occurring 48-72 hours after exposure to the antigen. Choice A, Type I hypersensitivity reactions, are immediate hypersensitivity reactions mediated by IgE antibodies. Choices B and C, Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, involve antibody-mediated cytotoxicity and immune complex deposition, respectively, which are not characteristic of poison ivy-induced rashes.

2. A patient suffers from dysmenorrhea. Which oral medication will be prescribed that has the ability to provide physiological actions on the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Progestins are prescribed for dysmenorrhea as they help reduce menstrual pain by inhibiting ovulation and decreasing the production of prostaglandins. Estrogen (Choice A) is not typically used alone in dysmenorrhea treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Naproxen (Choice C) and Ibuprofen (Choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea, but they do not directly affect the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function like progestins do.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

4. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.

5. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What important information should the nurse provide during patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. This information is crucial as early recognition and prompt treatment of blood clots can prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with causing weight gain, decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, or increasing the risk of breast cancer. Providing accurate information is essential for patient safety and understanding.

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