ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?
- A. Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density.
- B. Raloxifene increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
- C. Raloxifene stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- D. Raloxifene decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.
2. What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form initially?
- A. Interruption of blood flow to the brain
- B. Injury to the coronary artery endothelium
- C. Administration of statin medications
- D. Poor dietary modifications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to injury to the coronary artery endothelium, which triggers a cascade of events leading to plaque buildup. Choice A is incorrect because atherosclerotic plaques do not form due to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. Choice C is incorrect as statin medications are actually used to help lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of plaque formation. Choice D is incorrect as poor dietary modifications can contribute to atherosclerosis but are not the initial cause of plaque formation.
3. Not realizing that its surface was hot, a woman has quickly withdrawn her hand from the surface of a bowl that she was removing from a microwave. Which phenomena has facilitated the rapid movement of her hand in response to the painful stimulus?
- A. Crossed-extensor reflex
- B. Flexor reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Stretch reflex
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is a protective response that allows a person to quickly remove their hand from a painful stimulus.
4. The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
- A. Assistance with ambulation
- B. Regular hearing tests
- C. Monitoring for nausea
- D. Vision assessments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.
5. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:
- A. an ominous sign.
- B. normal and termed the postictal period.
- C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
- D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.
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