a patient is prescribed raloxifene evista for osteoporosis what is the primary mechanism of action for this medication
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.

2. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis. Allergies are caused by an excessive immune response to harmless substances, while rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the body's tissues, leading to inflammation and joint damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nails, Type II diabetes is a metabolic disorder not primarily related to immune response, smallpox is a viral infection, chronic renal failure is a kidney condition, and macular degeneration is an eye disorder, none of which are directly linked to excessive immune response.

3. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.

4. A patient is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. She is prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). What effect will this medication provide in the treatment of ischemic heart disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication that promotes the growth of white blood cells. In the context of ischemic heart disease, promoting angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels, can improve blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing ischemia and potentially improving cardiac function. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A and B are incorrect because filgrastim does not directly affect platelet levels. Choice D is also incorrect as filgrastim does not prevent thrombus formation.

5. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.

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