ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.
2. Which of the following are manifestations of Cushing syndrome?
- A. Truncal obesity with thin extremities.
- B. Enlargement of face, hands, and feet.
- C. Cachexia.
- D. Thick scalp hair.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Truncal obesity with thin extremities is a classic manifestation of Cushing syndrome due to the redistribution of fat. Enlargement of face, hands, and feet is seen in conditions like acromegaly, not Cushing syndrome. Cachexia is a state of severe weight loss and muscle wasting, typically seen in conditions like cancer or advanced infections. Thick scalp hair is not typically associated with Cushing syndrome.
3. A 65-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit from the operating room after a triple coronary artery bypass graft. He is intubated and on a ventilator. Lactic acid levels were normal postoperatively, but now they are rising. The increased level could be an indication of:
- A. excessive sedation
- B. bowel ischemia
- C. excessive volume infusion in the operating room
- D. mild hypothermia postoperatively
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the rising lactic acid levels in a 65-year-old man after a coronary artery bypass graft could indicate bowel ischemia. Bowel ischemia can lead to anaerobic metabolism, causing an increase in lactic acid levels. Excessive sedation may cause respiratory depression but would not directly lead to rising lactic acid levels. Excessive volume infusion in the operating room might cause fluid overload but would not typically result in rising lactic acid levels. Mild hypothermia postoperatively could lead to shivering and increased oxygen consumption, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of rising lactic acid levels in this context.
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of osteosarcoma?
- A. Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow
- B. Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the femur or tibia
- C. An aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones
- D. A tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding tissue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osteosarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor that most commonly arises in the bone marrow of long bones, such as the femur or tibia. Choice A is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not a slow-growing tumor but rather a fast-growing one. Choice B is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not typically solitary but can involve multiple lesions. Choice D is incorrect as osteosarcoma primarily affects the medullary (marrow) cavity of bones, rather than infiltrating the trabeculae in spongy bone and surrounding tissue.
5. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:
- A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
- B. negative for estrogen receptor.
- C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
- D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99