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MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?
- A. Hemangiomas
- B. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots)
- C. Macular stains
- D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains. These three types of birthmarks are known to fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and disappear over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis, commonly known as Mongolian spots, usually fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also called salmon patches, tend to lighten and fade as a child grows. The other choices are incorrect because they do not typically fade or regress with age.
2. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse provide during patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so adequate calcium intake is important.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
- D. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed tamoxifen, a critical piece of information that the nurse should provide during patient education is that tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain is a possible side effect of tamoxifen, but it is not a critical piece of information compared to the risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen is actually used to treat breast cancer, not increase its risk.
3. Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:
- A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
- B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
- C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
- D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.
4. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
- A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
- B. A 65-year-old man who worked as a taxi driver most of his life
- C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
- D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that can lead to COPD at a young age, even in light smokers. Choice B is less likely as the patient's occupation does not directly correlate with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice C, a 70-year-old woman with a long smoking history, is more likely to have COPD due to smoking rather than alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice D, exposure to secondhand smoke, is not a common cause of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency-related COPD.
5. What best describes sepsis?
- A. An overwhelming allergic reaction
- B. Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins
- C. Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
- D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins, leading to widespread infection and organ dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as sepsis is not primarily an allergic reaction. Choice C is incorrect as sepsis is not characterized by unknown causes resulting in hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as sepsis is a medical condition and not solely caused by poor nursing or healthcare provider interventions.
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