ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the use of this medication?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Taking it at different times can lead to hormonal fluctuations and reduced medication efficacy. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice B is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management, not automatically leading to discontinuation of the medication.
2. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?
- A. Risk for infection related to decreased erythropoiesis
- B. Activity intolerance related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
- C. Powerlessness related to sequelae of renal failure
- D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to inadequate erythropoietin synthesis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a patient with renal failure, the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is primarily aimed at addressing the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to impaired erythropoiesis. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, thereby improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This would directly address the activity intolerance commonly seen in patients with renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of using epoetin alfa in this context. Risk for infection, powerlessness, and ineffective breathing pattern are important considerations in the care of a patient with renal failure, but they are not the primary indications for using epoetin alfa.
3. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?
- A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
- B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
- C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
- D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.
4. What is the action of amphotericin B?
- A. It binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the membrane.
- B. It binds to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol.
- C. It disrupts the fungal cell walls rather than the cell membrane.
- D. It inhibits glucan synthetase required for glucan synthesis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication that acts by binding to ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, forming pores that disrupt the integrity of the membrane. This action leads to leakage of cellular contents and ultimately cell death. Choice B is incorrect as amphotericin B does not bind to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol. Choice C is incorrect as the drug primarily affects the cell membrane rather than the cell wall. Choice D is also incorrect as amphotericin B does not inhibit glucan synthetase.
5. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?
- A. Emotional stress
- B. Dietary indiscretion
- C. Physical overexertion
- D. Adequate rest and relaxation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.
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