Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?

• A. Absence of sweating
• B. Shivering
• C. Lack of thirst
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.

2. During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?

• A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce airway inflammation.
• B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading to assess the severity of the exacerbation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.

3. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

• A. Sputum culture
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest x-ray
• D. CT scan of the chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

4. A patient who is being administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis has a yellow color in the sclera of her eye. What other finding would lead you to believe that hepatotoxicity has developed?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Numbness
• C. Diminished vision
• D. Light-colored stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diarrhea. Hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid can present with various symptoms, including yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eyes, which indicates jaundice. Another common sign of hepatotoxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur due to liver dysfunction affecting bile production and digestion. Numbness (choice B) is more commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid, while diminished vision (choice C) and light-colored stools (choice D) are not typical manifestations of hepatotoxicity.

5. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

Similar Questions