Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?

• A. Absence of sweating
• B. Shivering
• C. Lack of thirst
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.

2. An older adult patient comes to the clinic complaining of not being able to do what he used to be able to. You know that normal changes associated with aging include:

• A. Improved blood flow
• B. Slowed metabolic rate
• C. Increased brain weight
• D. Improved nerve fiber conduction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Normal changes associated with aging include a slowed metabolic rate and decreased brain weight. Option A, 'Improved blood flow,' is incorrect as aging is generally associated with reduced vascular health rather than improved blood flow. Option D, 'Improved nerve fiber conduction,' is incorrect as aging typically leads to a decline in nerve function rather than improvement.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

4. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by the patient's statement regarding taking extra griseofulvin when she thinks her infection is getting worse?

• A. Deficient knowledge related to correct use of griseofulvin
• B. Effective therapeutic regimen management related to symptom identification
• C. Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin
• D. Ineffective coping related to self-medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin.' The patient's statement shows a misunderstanding of the correct use of griseofulvin by taking extra medication when she believes her infection is worsening. This behavior indicates a disturbance in her thought process regarding the appropriate use of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not lack of knowledge but rather a misunderstanding leading to inappropriate actions. Choice B is incorrect as the patient's actions do not demonstrate effective management of her therapeutic regimen. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is not engaged in self-medication but rather misinterpreting signals and self-adjusting the prescribed medication.

5. What best describes sepsis?

• A. An overwhelming allergic reaction
• B. Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins
• C. Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
• D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins, leading to widespread infection and organ dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as sepsis is not primarily an allergic reaction. Choice C is incorrect as sepsis is not characterized by unknown causes resulting in hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as sepsis is a medical condition and not solely caused by poor nursing or healthcare provider interventions.

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