the nurse is providing care for a patient who is taking isoniazid and rifampin rifadin for the treatment of active tuberculosis the patient should be
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

2. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.

3. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.

4. Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.

5. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythropoietin. The kidneys produce erythropoietin to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Insulin and glycogen are not hormones secreted by the kidneys; insulin is produced by the pancreas, and glycogen is a stored form of glucose. Testosterone is a hormone primarily produced by the testes in males and to a lesser extent in females. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland to regulate thyroid function, not red blood cell production.

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