ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A child's thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult's. Which of the following processes that contribute to immunity takes place in the thymus gland?
- A. Differentiation of B cells
- B. Production of natural killer (NK) cells
- C. Proliferation of T cells
- D. Filtration of antigens from the blood
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferation of T cells. The thymus gland is responsible for the maturation and proliferation of T cells, which play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. Option A, differentiation of B cells, is incorrect because B cell maturation primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Option B, production of natural killer (NK) cells, is incorrect as NK cells are mainly produced in the bone marrow and lymph nodes. Option D, filtration of antigens from the blood, is incorrect as antigen filtration is not a primary function of the thymus gland.
2. A nurse is providing education to a patient starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the long-term risks associated with HRT?
- A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
- D. HRT may decrease the risk of breast cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly with long-term use.
3. A patient is being administered chemotherapeutic agents for the treatment of cancer. Which of the following blood cells will be stimulated by the colony-stimulating factors in response to the effects of the chemotherapy?
- A. White blood cells
- B. Red blood cells
- C. Phagocytes
- D. Myocardial cells
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is White blood cells. Colony-stimulating factors stimulate the production of white blood cells in response to the effects of chemotherapy, as it can lead to myelosuppression. Red blood cells are not directly stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Phagocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses, but they are not specifically stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Myocardial cells are cardiac muscle cells and are not directly involved in the response to chemotherapy-induced myelosuppression.
4. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Bronchospasm
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
5. A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?
- A. “I will report to the doctor if I have a slow heart rate.”
- B. “The medicine will leave a bitter or metallic taste in my mouth.”
- C. “I will report urinary urgency and incontinence.”
- D. “The medication is given in two doses every day.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.
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