ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.
2. An infant is being administered an immunization. Which of the following provides an accurate description of an immunization?
- A. It should be administered to a pregnant woman prior to the infant's birth.
- B. It is the administration of an antigen to stimulate an antibody response.
- C. It produces many adverse reactions, particularly autism, in the infant.
- D. It protects the infant from exposure to infectious antibodies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunization involves administering an antigen, such as a weakened or killed microorganism, to stimulate the immune system to produce an antibody response. This process helps the body recognize and remember specific pathogens, providing immunity against future infections. Choice A is incorrect because immunizations are administered to the infant directly, not to the pregnant woman before birth. Choice C is incorrect as there is no scientific evidence linking immunizations to autism. Choice D is incorrect as immunizations protect against infectious agents, not antibodies.
3. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?
- A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
- B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions. It is crucial for patients to be informed about this to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that immediate protection is conferred, which is not the case. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.
4. A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?
- A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
- B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
- C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
- D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.
5. Although stress exposure initiates integrated responses by multiple systems, which system first activates the most important changes?
- A. Pulmonary
- B. Gastrointestinal
- C. Neuroendocrine
- D. Cardiovascular
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the Neuroendocrine system. When the body is exposed to stress, the neuroendocrine system plays a crucial role in initiating the body's response. This system, particularly through the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, triggers a cascade of physiological responses to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while other systems like the cardiovascular and gastrointestinal systems also respond to stress, the neuroendocrine system is primarily responsible for the initial and significant changes in the body's stress response.
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