ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. When educating a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, which manifestation should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dry cough
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril. This cough can be bothersome and may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to explore potential alternatives or adjustments to the treatment plan. Tremors, drowsiness, and hyperactivity are not commonly associated with enalapril and are less likely to be attributed to this medication.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a group of new parents about immunizations. The provider should instruct the parents that the series for which of the following vaccines is completed prior to the first birthday?
- A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
- C. Varicella vaccine
- D. Rotavirus vaccine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The series for the Rotavirus vaccine is completed prior to the first birthday as it is only administered to infants less than 8 months of age. This vaccine provides protection against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the series for these vaccines extends beyond the first birthday. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and Meningococcal conjugate vaccine are typically given in multiple doses up to 2 years of age, while the Varicella vaccine is usually administered between 12 to 15 months of age.
3. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone and is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- D. Decrease your intake of protein.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods. Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion; therefore, it is essential for clients to consume foods high in potassium such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy products is not directly related to the side effects of Prednisone. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing protein intake is not a typical dietary instruction for clients prescribed Prednisone.
4. A client is being discharged and will start long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma treatment. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is an adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which leads to fluid retention. This can be monitored by tracking weight changes. Nervousness (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically associated with prednisone use; in fact, tachycardia can be more common. Constipation (Choice D) is not a prominent adverse effect of prednisone.
5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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