Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Inject the medication into the muscle.
• B. Massage the injection site after administration.
• C. Rotate injection sites between the arms and thighs.
• D. Administer the medication in the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction is to administer Enoxaparin in the abdomen as a subcutaneous injection. This method helps prevent bleeding complications associated with the medication. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided to reduce the risk of local irritation or bleeding. While rotating injection sites between the arms and thighs is a good practice for some medications, it is not recommended for Enoxaparin. Consistent administration in the abdomen ensures optimal absorption and helps avoid complications.

2. A client with heart failure is being instructed on laxative use. Which of the following laxatives should the client avoid?

• A. Sodium phosphate
• B. Psyllium
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Polyethylene glycol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium phosphate. Clients with heart failure often follow a sodium-restricted diet. Sodium phosphate laxatives can lead to sodium absorption, causing fluid retention, which is contraindicated in heart failure. It is crucial to avoid sodium phosphate laxatives in these clients to prevent exacerbation of fluid overload and heart failure symptoms. Psyllium (choice B), Bisacodyl (choice C), and Polyethylene glycol (choice D) are not contraindicated in clients with heart failure and can be used safely for bowel management.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

4. When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), how many hours should you be nitrate-free each day?

• A. 1-2 hours
• B. 5-10 hours
• C. 3-4 hours
• D. 10-12 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), it should be applied for 10-12 hours per day to ensure its effectiveness. A nitrate-free period within the day is essential to prevent the development of tolerance to the medication.

5. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. Furosemide
• C. Valproic acid
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

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