Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Inject the medication into the muscle.
• B. Massage the injection site after administration.
• C. Rotate injection sites between the arms and thighs.
• D. Administer the medication in the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction is to administer Enoxaparin in the abdomen as a subcutaneous injection. This method helps prevent bleeding complications associated with the medication. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided to reduce the risk of local irritation or bleeding. While rotating injection sites between the arms and thighs is a good practice for some medications, it is not recommended for Enoxaparin. Consistent administration in the abdomen ensures optimal absorption and helps avoid complications.

2. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

• A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
• B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
• C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
• D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

3. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
• B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
• C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
• D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.

4. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Cholesterol level.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Blood glucose level.
• D. Calcium level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.

5. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

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