Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The available heparin injection is 20,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 1 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose / Concentration = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL. Since the volume needs to be rounded up to the nearest tenth, the correct answer is 0.8 mL. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect because it does not account for rounding up the volume. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the precise calculation based on the given concentration and desired dose.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Report any signs of bleeding to your provider.
• D. Use an electric shaver for shaving.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of warfarin therapy that needs prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while oral hygiene measures, dietary considerations, and skin care are important, they are not the priority when teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Monitoring for and reporting signs of bleeding is crucial due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

4. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

• A. PT/INR
• B. Platelet count
• C. aPTT
• D. WBC count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

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