a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for vasopressin to treat diabetes insipidus which of the following client statements indicates an
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.

2. A client has a new prescription for Efavirenz, an NNRTI. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Efavirenz at bedtime to prevent drowsiness and manage central nervous system side effects like dizziness and vivid dreams. While it is important to take the medication at the same time daily for consistent blood levels, the emphasis should be on bedtime to minimize the impact of these side effects. Choices B and C suggesting taking the medication with milk or juice are incorrect and not relevant to optimizing Efavirenz therapy.

3. A client asks the nurse to explain the difference between stable and unstable angina. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stable angina is typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress and is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by angina episodes that are unexpected, more severe, prolonged, and can occur at rest. Understanding these differences can help healthcare providers assess and manage angina episodes effectively, ensuring appropriate interventions are implemented promptly based on the type of angina present.

4. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

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