Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

4. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.

5. A client is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Neurotoxicity
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for neurotoxicity is crucial to detect any signs early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not a typical finding associated with vincristine. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to vincristine. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of vincristine.

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