Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

2. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. It is characterized by a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is crucial to detect neutropenia early. The nurse should also educate the client on recognizing signs of infection and promptly reporting them to the healthcare provider for timely intervention. Hypokalemia is a potential adverse effect of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of Captopril.

3. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

4. What is the pharmacological class of Lithium?

• A. Antidiabetics, biguanides
• B. Mood stabilizers
• C. Antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
• D. Vascular headache suppressants

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is classified as a mood stabilizer due to its primary use in managing bipolar disorder, where it helps stabilize mood swings and prevent episodes of mania and depression. While it can have other effects on the body, its main therapeutic role lies in its mood-stabilizing properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not classified as antidiabetics, biguanides, antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants, or vascular headache suppressants. Its main pharmacological class is mood stabilizers.

5. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?

• A. The vein for thrombophlebitis during IV administration.
• B. The subcutaneous site for redness following injection.
• C. The oral mucosa for ulceration after oral administration.
• D. The skin for irritation following removal of a transdermal patch.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously. Injection-site redness and swelling are common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for any potential issues or reactions.

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