Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor your heart rate regularly.
• C. Avoid consuming foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase your fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). Monitoring the heart rate regularly is crucial to promptly detect any significant decreases. This allows for timely intervention and adjustment of the medication regimen if needed, helping to prevent adverse effects associated with bradycardia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning does not address the need for heart rate monitoring. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. Increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the use of Atenolol.

3. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

4. What is levothyroxine's pharmacologic classification?

• A. Thyroid Preparations
• B. Metabolic Inhibitors
• C. Analgesic
• D. Loop Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine is classified as a thyroid preparation because it is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. It is primarily used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing or replacing the natural thyroid hormones in the body, helping to regulate metabolism and energy levels. Choice B, Metabolic Inhibitors, is incorrect because levothyroxine does not inhibit metabolism but rather helps regulate it. Choice C, Analgesic, is incorrect as levothyroxine is not used for pain relief but for thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Choice D, Loop Diuretic, is also incorrect as loop diuretics are medications that act on the kidneys to increase urine production and are not related to thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

5. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

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