a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for phenelzine for the treatment of depression which of the following indicates that the cli
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has been prescribed Phenelzine for depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a known adverse effect of Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression. It is caused by a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to symptoms like dizziness or fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial during Phenelzine therapy to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hearing loss, gastrointestinal bleeding, and weight loss are not typically associated with Phenelzine use.

2. A client has a new prescription for Bisacodyl. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include when educating a client about Bisacodyl is to expect rectal burning with the suppository form. Bisacodyl, a stimulant laxative, is known to cause rectal burning when administered as a suppository. This side effect is common and expected, and it is important for the client to be aware of it to prevent unnecessary alarm or concern. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Bisacodyl before bedtime is not a common instruction; expecting a rapid heart rate is not a typical side effect of Bisacodyl; and increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not related to the use of Bisacodyl.

3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.

4. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.

5. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

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