ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has been prescribed Phenelzine for depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Hearing loss
- C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a known adverse effect of Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression. It is caused by a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to symptoms like dizziness or fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial during Phenelzine therapy to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hearing loss, gastrointestinal bleeding, and weight loss are not typically associated with Phenelzine use.
2. When educating a client prescribed Rifampin, which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Expect orange discoloration of urine.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you experience itching.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Rifampin is to expect orange discoloration of urine. Rifampin is known to cause harmless discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, which is a common side effect of this medication. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected side effect to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Rifampin does not require specific dietary considerations like taking it with food or increasing dairy intake. Furthermore, itching is not a common side effect that would necessitate immediate discontinuation of Rifampin.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?
- A. 1-year-old who has no health problems
- B. 17-year-old who has a hypersensitivity to Penicillin
- C. 25-year-old who is pregnant
- D. 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.
4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. Report any signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider.
- C. Use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
- D. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement that the healthcare professional should include when educating a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious side effect of warfarin. Prompt reporting of bleeding symptoms is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding foods high in vitamin K may be important when taking warfarin due to its interaction with the medication, it is not the priority over reporting signs of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor are general precautions for individuals on anticoagulants but are not as critical as reporting bleeding symptoms.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 22 gtt/min
- B. 24 gtt/min
- C. 20 gtt/min
- D. 18 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.
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