ati exit exam ATI Exit Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infections. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. It is important to educate the participant that antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote good hygiene practices and infection prevention during pregnancy.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to administering the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take prior to administering digoxin is to assess the client's apical pulse. Digoxin is known to affect the heart rate, potentially causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) is not directly related to administering digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice C) is important but not a direct prerequisite for administering digoxin. Monitoring the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is also important but not a specific action to take just before administering digoxin.

5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

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