ATI RN
Fluid and Electrolytes ATI
1. Third spacing occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space. Based on this fluid shift, the nurse will expect the patient to demonstrate:
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypervolemia
- D. Hypovolemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario of third-spacing fluid shift, where fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, the patient is expected to demonstrate hypovolemia. Hypertension (Choice A) is unlikely as hypovolemia typically leads to decreased blood pressure. Bradycardia (Choice B) is not a common manifestation of hypovolemia, as the body often tries to compensate by increasing heart rate. Hypervolemia (Choice C) indicates an excess of fluid, which is the opposite of what occurs in third spacing.
2. The nurse assessing skin turgor in an elderly patient should remember that:
- A. Overhydration causes the skin to tent.
- B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.
- C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
- D. Normal skin turgor is moist and boggy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Normal skin turgor is dry and firm. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration does not cause the skin to tent; it is dehydration that leads to tenting. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration, not overhydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice D is incorrect because normal skin turgor is dry and firm, not moist and boggy.
3. A nurse preparing to start an IV on a newly admitted patient teaches the patient about the procedure and begins to prepare the site. The nurse should always start by:
- A. Leaving one hand ungloved to assess the site
- B. Preparing the skin with an iodine solution
- C. Asking the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine
- D. Removing excessive hair at the selected site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine, which are commonly used in IV therapy setup. This is crucial to prevent potential allergic reactions at the IV site or even life-threatening anaphylaxis. Leaving one hand ungloved (choice A) is not a recommended practice as both hands should be gloved for infection control. While preparing the skin with an iodine solution (choice B) is a step in the process, ensuring the patient's safety by checking for allergies comes first. Removing excessive hair at the selected site (choice D) is not necessary and can lead to skin irritation.
4. Which of the following might the nurse assess in a patient diagnosed with hypermagnesemia?
- A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Cool clammy skin
- D. Increased serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diminished deep tendon reflexes. In a patient with hypermagnesemia, the nurse would assess for diminished deep tendon reflexes. Hypermagnesemia can lead to neuromuscular depression, causing a decrease in deep tendon reflexes. Tachycardia (choice B) is more commonly associated with hypomagnesemia. Cool clammy skin (choice C) is not typically a direct symptom of hypermagnesemia. While hypermagnesemia does involve increased serum magnesium levels (choice D), assessing serum levels is a laboratory test and not a clinical assessment like checking deep tendon reflexes.
5. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:
- A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
- B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
- C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
- D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.
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