Nursing Elites

1. A patient is in the hospital with heart failure. The nurse notes during the evening assessment that the patient's neck veins are distended and the patient has dyspnea. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the patient in low Fowler's position and notify the physician.
• B. Increase the patient's IV fluid and auscultate the lungs.
• C. Place the patient in semi-Fowler's position and prepare to give the PRN diuretic as ordered.
• D. Discontinue the patient's IV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of distended neck veins and dyspnea indicate fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Placing the patient in semi-Fowler's position helps with respiratory effort and administering diuretics, as ordered, can assist in reducing fluid volume. Placing the patient in low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not be as effective in improving breathing. Increasing IV fluid (Choice B) is contraindicated in fluid overload conditions. Discontinuing the IV (Choice D) is not the immediate intervention needed to address the symptoms of fluid overload.

2. A nurse assesses a client who was started on intraperitoneal therapy 5 days ago. The client reports abdominal pain and feeling warm. For which complication of this therapy should the nurse assess this client?

• A. Allergic reaction
• B. Bowel obstruction
• C. Catheter lumen occlusion
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse expect to receive?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg intravenous push
• B. Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq diluted in 1 L of D5W
• C. Mechanical ventilation
• D. Indwelling urinary catheter

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Increased DTRs
• D. Shallow respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

Similar Questions