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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.

2. When preparing an in-service on malpractice issues in nursing, which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering potassium via IV bolus is a high-risk procedure that requires careful attention and adherence to established protocols to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrest. Errors in administering IV medications, especially potent ones like potassium, can lead to severe harm to the patient and potential legal consequences for the healthcare provider. Therefore, including this example in the in-service on malpractice issues helps emphasize the importance of safe medication administration practices and the potential implications of errors.

3. When assessing a client with sinusitis, which technique should the nurse use to identify manifestations of this disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sinusitis is an inflammation of the sinus cavities, which can cause tenderness and pain around the eyes (orbital areas). Palpation of the orbital areas can help identify tenderness and swelling associated with sinusitis. Auscultation of the trachea and percussion of the frontal sinuses are not relevant assessment techniques for sinusitis. Inspection of the nasal mucosa may reveal signs of inflammation, but palpation of the orbital areas is a more direct method to assess for tenderness and swelling in this specific condition.

4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

5. During discharge teaching, a client informs the nurse about a new prescription for prednisone for asthma. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding in teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking prednisone with meals can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset and irritation. It is important for the client to understand how to take the medication correctly to maximize its effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. Monitoring for weight loss or changes in stools may be important but does not directly relate to the administration of the medication with meals.

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