Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?

• A. Gender
• B. Environmental allergies
• C. Alcohol
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
• B. FACES pain scale.
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

3. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:

• A. A semiconscious or overfatigued patient
• B. A disoriented or confused patient
• C. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home
• D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with impaired awareness may exhibit symptoms such as being semiconscious, overfatigued, disoriented, confused, or demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home does not necessarily indicate impaired awareness, as this could be due to physical limitations or lack of support, rather than a cognitive deficit.

4. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
• C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
• D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.

5. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
• C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
• D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.

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