ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following techniques involves the sense of sight?
- A. Inspection
- B. Palpation
- C. Percussion
- D. Auscultation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Inspection (Choice A). Inspection is a technique that involves observing the patient using the sense of sight. During inspection, a healthcare provider visually examines the patient for any abnormalities, changes, or specific signs that may help in diagnosing a condition. Palpation (Choice B) involves using the sense of touch to feel for abnormalities. Percussion (Choice C) involves tapping the body to produce sounds that can help identify the underlying structures. Auscultation (Choice D) involves listening to sounds produced by the body, typically using a stethoscope. Therefore, in this context, the technique that specifically involves the sense of sight is Inspection.
2. Before rigor mortis occurs, what is the nurse responsible for?
- A. Providing a complete bath and dressing change
- B. Placing one pillow under the body’s head and shoulders
- C. Removing the body’s clothing and wrapping the body in a shroud
- D. Allowing the body to relax normally
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for placing a pillow under the body's head and shoulders. This action helps maintain proper positioning, prevent postmortem changes, and ensure a dignified appearance. Providing a complete bath and dressing change, removing clothing, or wrapping the body in a shroud are tasks typically performed after rigor mortis sets in or later in the postmortem care process. Allowing the body to relax normally does not address the immediate need for proper positioning before rigor mortis occurs.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
- B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
- C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
- D. A client who has dysphagia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.
4. A client with vision loss is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse AVOID?
- A. Keep objects in the client's room in the same place
- B. Ensure there is high-wattage lighting in the client's room
- C. Approach the client from the side
- D. Allow extra time for the client to perform tasks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Approaching a client with vision loss from the side can startle them and may lead to accidents or discomfort. It is important to approach them from the front so they are aware of your presence. Keeping objects in the same place aids in familiarity and reduces the risk of falls. High-wattage lighting enhances visibility for the client. Allowing extra time for tasks accommodates the client's potential slower pace and ensures they can perform tasks safely.
5. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
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