ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following techniques involves the sense of sight?
- A. Inspection
- B. Palpation
- C. Percussion
- D. Auscultation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Inspection (Choice A). Inspection is a technique that involves observing the patient using the sense of sight. During inspection, a healthcare provider visually examines the patient for any abnormalities, changes, or specific signs that may help in diagnosing a condition. Palpation (Choice B) involves using the sense of touch to feel for abnormalities. Percussion (Choice C) involves tapping the body to produce sounds that can help identify the underlying structures. Auscultation (Choice D) involves listening to sounds produced by the body, typically using a stethoscope. Therefore, in this context, the technique that specifically involves the sense of sight is Inspection.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased creatinine.
- B. Increased hemoglobin.
- C. Increased bicarbonate.
- D. Increased calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to an accumulation of creatinine. Creatinine levels are commonly elevated in individuals with impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator of kidney health. Therefore, an increased creatinine level would be an expected finding in a client with chronic kidney disease.
3. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
4. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
- B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
- C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
- D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.
5. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school-age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give?
- A. Administer the feeding over 30 minutes
- B. Place the child in a supine position after the feeding
- C. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days
- D. Warm the formula in a warm water bath before administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the feeding over 30 minutes helps prevent complications such as aspiration. Placing the child in an upright position after the feeding is recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration. It is essential to change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days to maintain asepsis and prevent infections. Warming the formula in a warm water bath is the correct method as using a microwave can create hot spots that may burn the child's mouth or throat.
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