ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?
- A. There are contraindications for this test
- B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
- C. A signed consent is not required
- D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.
2. A client is receiving vecuronium for acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering with this medication?
- A. Fentanyl
- B. Furosemide
- C. Famotidine
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during mechanical ventilation. When administering vecuronium, it is common to also give an opioid analgesic, such as fentanyl, to manage pain and ensure the patient's comfort. Fentanyl is often used in combination with neuromuscular blocking agents to provide balanced anesthesia, making it the appropriate medication to anticipate administering in this scenario.
3. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. Thrombophlebitis.
- C. Diverticulosis.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives due to an increased risk of thromboembolism. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolic disorders should avoid oral contraceptives to prevent further complications like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
4. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while he is sitting.
- B. Provide total care in assisting with the client's ADLs.
- C. Encourage mobility and avoid bed rest.
- D. Facilitate feeding by placing food on the left side of the client's mouth when ready to eat.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.
5. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
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