ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?
- A. There are contraindications for this test
- B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
- C. A signed consent is not required
- D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.
2. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
3. Which action would break sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?
- A. Using sterile forceps instead of sterile gloves to handle a sterile item
- B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
- C. Placing a sterile object at the edge of the sterile field
- D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring it into a sterile container
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves can introduce contaminants and compromise the sterility of the item. It is crucial to maintain strict adherence to sterile technique to prevent infections and ensure patient safety during procedures.
4. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:
- A. A semiconscious or overfatigued patient
- B. A disoriented or confused patient
- C. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home
- D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with impaired awareness may exhibit symptoms such as being semiconscious, overfatigued, disoriented, confused, or demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home does not necessarily indicate impaired awareness, as this could be due to physical limitations or lack of support, rather than a cognitive deficit.
5. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.
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