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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease is to avoid smoking while taking the medication. Smoking can interfere with the effectiveness of ranitidine and worsen ulcer symptoms. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to abstain from smoking to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ranitidine with or without food does not significantly affect its effectiveness, there is no specific need to increase intake of dairy products, and expecting a yellow tinge to the skin is not a common side effect associated with Ranitidine.

2. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches is to rotate the application site daily. This is important to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal absorption of the medication. Applying the patch at the same time every day (Choice A) is not necessary for nitroglycerin patches. Removing the patch for 12 hours each day (Choice C) would disrupt the continuous delivery of medication. Cutting the patch in half (Choice D) can alter the dose and is not recommended unless directed by a healthcare provider.

4. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

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