ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.
2. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?
- A. Swelling of the ankles.
- B. Increased urination.
- C. Persistent cough.
- D. Dark-colored urine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.
3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
- B. Rotate the application site daily.
- C. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
- D. Cut the patch in half if needed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches is to rotate the application site daily. This is important to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal absorption of the medication. Applying the patch at the same time every day (Choice A) is not necessary for nitroglycerin patches. Removing the patch for 12 hours each day (Choice C) would disrupt the continuous delivery of medication. Cutting the patch in half (Choice D) can alter the dose and is not recommended unless directed by a healthcare provider.
4. What is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Narcan
- C. Romazicon
- D. Naloxone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.
5. What is the primary use of lithium?
- A. Lower blood glucose
- B. Slow the heart rate
- C. Stabilize mood
- D. Heal ulcers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.
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