Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid smoking while taking this medication.
• C. Increase intake of dairy products.
• D. Expect a yellow tinge to the skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease is to avoid smoking while taking the medication. Smoking can interfere with the effectiveness of ranitidine and worsen ulcer symptoms. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to abstain from smoking to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ranitidine with or without food does not significantly affect its effectiveness, there is no specific need to increase intake of dairy products, and expecting a yellow tinge to the skin is not a common side effect associated with Ranitidine.

2. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina asks the nurse to explain possible side effects. What should NOT be included in client teaching?

• A. Reflex tachycardia
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hyponatremia is not a common side effect associated with nitroglycerin use. Nitroglycerin typically causes side effects such as reflex tachycardia, dizziness, and hypotension due to its vasodilatory effects. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to educate the client about these potential side effects to promote understanding and appropriate management.

3. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Lansoprazole?

• A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
• B. Gastritis
• C. Hypertension
• D. Reflux

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat conditions related to excessive stomach acid production, such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, gastritis, and reflux. However, it is not indicated for the treatment of hypertension, which is managed using antihypertensive medications. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Hypertension.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?

• A. Within 30 minutes/unit
• B. Within 60 minutes/unit
• C. Within 2 hours/unit
• D. Within 4 hours/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.

5. When assessing a client taking Lithium Carbonate for Bipolar disorder, which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?

• A. Severe hypertension
• B. Coarse tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle spasm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Coarse tremors. Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. Monitoring for tremors is crucial as they can indicate a potentially serious complication that requires immediate intervention. While other options such as severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasm may be symptoms of various conditions, they are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity; constipation is not a typical symptom of Lithium toxicity either, and muscle spasm is not a direct indicator of Lithium toxicity.

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