a nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for sinusitis the nurse should assess th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.

2. When teaching a client with cancer who has a prescription for methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, so instructing the client to take folic acid helps reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity by providing additional folic acid that the medication may deplete. Magnesium (choice B), Vitamin D (choice C), and Iron (choice D) are not the correct supplements to instruct the client to take with methotrexate.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

4. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

5. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Alendronate with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. This helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation, as the medication can cause irritation if not taken correctly. Taking it before bedtime (choice C) can increase the risk of irritation as the individual lies down. Lying down after taking the medication (choice B) can also lead to esophageal irritation. Crushing the tablet (choice D) is not recommended as Alendronate should be taken whole with a full glass of water.

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