ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.
2. During the repair of a skin laceration, a client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?
- A. Seizures
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction following the administration of local anesthetics like Lidocaine. This adverse effect is important to monitor as it can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant in recognizing any signs of seizure activity to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
3. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?
- A. Proximal convoluted tubule
- B. Loop of Henle
- C. Collecting duct
- D. Distal convoluted tubule
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.
4. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is experiencing muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers by increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, thereby helping to restore muscle strength. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, not neuromuscular blockade. Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, like the one the client received, and is not used to reverse its effects.
5. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
- C. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Labetalol. Abrupt discontinuation of beta-blockers like Labetalol can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is important for clients to taper off the medication under healthcare provider guidance to prevent potential complications.
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