ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.
2. When educating a client with a new prescription for Amlodipine, which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- B. Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you.
- C. Stop taking the medication if you develop a dry cough.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid driving until they understand the medication's effects. Amlodipine can cause dizziness, making it unsafe to drive until the client knows how the medication affects them. This instruction promotes client safety and prevents potential accidents due to medication side effects.
3. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
- C. BUN 55 mg/dL
- D. Glucose 120 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
4. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?
- A. Over 1,000 mg
- B. 750 mg
- C. Over 1,500 mg
- D. 150 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.
5. A patient is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The available acetaminophen liquid is 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 6.5 mL
- B. 7 mL
- C. 5 mL
- D. 8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen liquid per dose to provide the prescribed 650 mg of acetaminophen. Choice B, 7 mL, is incorrect because the correct calculation results in 6.5 mL. Choice C, 5 mL, is incorrect as it is the concentration of the acetaminophen liquid, not the final volume needed. Choice D, 8 mL, is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the prescription and concentration.
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