a nurse is preparing to initiate iv therapy for an older adult client which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The healthcare professional should distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to make the veins more visible and accessible for IV catheter insertion. This technique helps reduce the risk of overfilling the vein, which can lead to complications such as hematoma formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while selecting the antecubital area is often appropriate for IV insertion in adults, the key action in this scenario is to distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to facilitate the procedure.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect a persistent, dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as a side effect. This should be reported to the healthcare provider if it becomes bothersome. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so the client is aware and can seek appropriate guidance if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Lisinopril with food is not required. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not a specific instruction for Lisinopril, and taking the medication at bedtime is not a typical recommendation associated with this medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for Cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed Cyclobenzaprine is to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, so it is important to advise clients to avoid activities that require alertness and coordination to prevent accidents or injuries. Choice B is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing muscle pain. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Cyclobenzaprine.

4. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

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