Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

2. A client starting highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for HIV infection is being educated by a nurse on preventing medication resistance. What information should the nurse provide the client about resistance?

• A. Taking low dosages of antiretroviral medication minimizes resistance.
• B. Taking one antiretroviral medication at a time minimizes resistance.
• C. Taking medication at the same time daily without missing doses minimizes resistance.
• D. Changing the medication regimen when adverse effects occur minimizes resistance.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent the development of medication resistance, it is crucial for the client to take antiretroviral medication consistently at the same time daily without missing doses. This practice helps maintain effective drug levels in the body, reducing the risk of resistance development.

3. When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, what should the healthcare provider monitor the client's urine for?

• A. Bilirubin
• B. Protein
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring urine for calcium is essential. Somatropin can lead to increased calcium levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of renal calculi formation. Therefore, assessing for calcium in the urine helps in early detection and prevention of this complication. Monitoring for bilirubin, protein, or potassium in the urine is not directly related to the effects of Somatropin and would not provide relevant information in this context.

4. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

5. When teaching a patient to take their own pulse, which medication should the nurse instruct them to monitor? (Hint: if pulse is <60 or >100, the patient should contact their healthcare provider before taking the medication)

• A. Digoxin
• B. Lithium
• C. Montelukast
• D. Phenytoin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for patients taking Digoxin to monitor their pulse regularly. If their pulse falls below 60 or exceeds 100 beats per minute, they should contact their healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial due to Digoxin's potential to affect heart rate, making pulse monitoring a vital aspect of patient care while on this medication.

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