Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

2. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

3. A client has ordered a thrombolytic medication for the treatment of CVA. Which type of stroke should not be treated with a thrombolytic?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thrombotic stroke
• C. Both types can be treated with a thrombolytic
• D. Neither type can be treated with a thrombolytic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic medications are used to dissolve blood clots. In the case of a hemorrhagic stroke, where there is bleeding in the brain, the use of thrombolytics can worsen the condition by increasing bleeding. Therefore, hemorrhagic strokes should not be treated with thrombolytic medications.

4. Which part of the body requires a continuous supply of oxygen and vital nutrients to support life and death?

• A. Liver
• B. Kidneys
• C. Brain
• D. Muscles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The brain requires a continuous supply of oxygen and vital nutrients to support life and prevent death. Oxygen and nutrients are essential for brain function, and any interruption in the supply can lead to serious consequences, including brain damage or death. Therefore, ensuring a constant flow of oxygen and nutrients to the brain is vital for survival and overall health.

5. A client is receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Leukocytosis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Fever

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension promptly. Leukocytosis refers to an increased white blood cell count and is not directly related to epoetin alfa treatment. Hyperkalemia is an elevated potassium level, which is not a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa. Fever is not a typical finding associated with epoetin alfa therapy.

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