Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

2. When teaching a client with a prescription for Cephalexin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• C. Expect your stools to turn black.
• D. Complete the full course of medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed with Cephalexin is to complete the full course of medication. This is crucial to ensure the infection is completely treated and to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Cephalexin with an antacid is generally not recommended as it may reduce its effectiveness. While dairy products can interfere with certain antibiotics, they do not have a direct interaction with Cephalexin. Stools turning black is not an expected side effect of Cephalexin.

3. A client has a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Oral prednisone can lead to weight gain and fluid retention due to its sodium and water retention effects. Monitoring weight changes is crucial to identify and manage this adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because oral prednisone is not typically associated with nervousness, bradycardia, or constipation as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring weight gain in clients prescribed long-term oral prednisone therapy.

4. A client has a new prescription for Losartan. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels is not typically required when a patient is on Losartan unless there are specific indications or comorbidities that warrant such monitoring.

5. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?

• A. 1000
• B. 1030
• C. 1100
• D. 1130

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.

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