ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. When creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
- B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
- C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
- D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder often feel compelled to perform rituals to alleviate anxiety. Allowing the client enough time to perform these rituals can help reduce their anxiety levels and promote a sense of control. Providing autonomy in scheduling activities can also empower the client and enhance their sense of independence. Discouraging exploration of irrational fears may increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors is not recommended as it can be counterproductive and reinforce the behavior.
2. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?
- A. Confusion
- B. Pale skin
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.
4. What do high-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate?
- A. Increased bowel motility
- B. Decreased bowel motility
- C. Normal bowel sounds
- D. Abdominal cramping
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate normal bowel sounds. Bowel sounds can vary in pitch, and high-pitched gurgles are considered normal and indicate the presence of active peristalsis in the intestines.
5. A healthcare provider reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3-month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The healthcare provider could be charged with:
- A. Defamation
- B. Assault
- C. Battery
- D. Malpractice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The scenario described involves a breach of duty by the healthcare provider to properly supervise the infant, resulting in harm. This failure to meet the standard of care falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or misconduct. Malpractice specifically applies to situations where a healthcare provider's actions or omissions deviate from the accepted standard of care, causing harm to a patient. In this case, the nurse's lack of supervision leading to the infant falling off the scale and sustaining a skull fracture would be considered malpractice.
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