ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. When creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
- B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
- C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
- D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder often feel compelled to perform rituals to alleviate anxiety. Allowing the client enough time to perform these rituals can help reduce their anxiety levels and promote a sense of control. Providing autonomy in scheduling activities can also empower the client and enhance their sense of independence. Discouraging exploration of irrational fears may increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors is not recommended as it can be counterproductive and reinforce the behavior.
2. When assessing a client with sinusitis, which technique should the nurse use to identify manifestations of this disorder?
- A. Percussion of the frontal sinuses
- B. Auscultation of the trachea
- C. Inspection of the nasal mucosa
- D. Palpation of the orbital areas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sinusitis is an inflammation of the sinus cavities, which can cause tenderness and pain around the eyes (orbital areas). Palpation of the orbital areas can help identify tenderness and swelling associated with sinusitis. Auscultation of the trachea and percussion of the frontal sinuses are not relevant assessment techniques for sinusitis. Inspection of the nasal mucosa may reveal signs of inflammation, but palpation of the orbital areas is a more direct method to assess for tenderness and swelling in this specific condition.
3. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
4. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
- B. Using a water or air mattress
- C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
- D. Providing meticulous skin care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.
5. For abdominal inspection, in which of the following positions should a patient be placed?
- A. Prone
- B. Trendelenburg
- C. Supine
- D. Side-lying
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The supine position is ideal for abdominal inspection as it allows the healthcare provider to easily access and examine the abdomen. In the supine position, the patient lies flat on their back with arms at their sides, providing a clear view and access to the abdominal area for inspection.
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