ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.
2. When teaching a client with tuberculosis, which statement should the nurse include?
- A. You will need to continue taking the multi-medication regimen for 4 months.
- B. You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. You will need to remain hospitalized for treatment.
- D. You will need to wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring the effectiveness of tuberculosis medication is crucial to ensure the treatment is working properly. Regular sputum samples help in assessing the response to the medication. This monitoring can guide adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Options A and C are incorrect as they do not reflect essential aspects of tuberculosis treatment. Option D is not a standard recommendation for tuberculosis treatment and may lead to misconceptions.
3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?
- A. Client who has dysphagia
- B. Client who has AIDS
- C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
- D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.
4. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?
- A. 4,500/mm³
- B. 7,000/mm³
- C. 10,000/mm³
- D. 25,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.
5. What is the best description of resonance?
- A. Sounds created by air-filled structures
- B. Short, high-pitched, and thudding
- C. Moderately loud with a musical quality
- D. Drum-like
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Resonance refers to the quality of sound produced by vibrations that are reinforced by other vibrations of the same frequency. In the context of the human body, resonance is often associated with sounds produced by air-filled structures like the lungs, vocal cords, and resonating cavities. Therefore, the best description of resonance from the given options is 'Sounds created by air-filled structures.' This choice aligns with the concept of resonance as it relates to sound production in the human body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to the concept of resonance or its association with air-filled structures.
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