Nursing Elites

1. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Potassium level
• C. Creatinine clearance
• D. Prealbumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.

2. What is the meaning of PRN?

• A. When advice
• B. Immediately
• C. When necessary
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
• B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
• C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
• D. A client who has dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.

4. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?

• A. 54
• B. 96
• C. 150
• D. 246

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to care for a client following chest tube placement. Which of the following items should NOT be available in the client's room?

• A. Oxygen
• B. Sterile water
• C. Enclosed hemostat clamps
• D. Indwelling urinary catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following chest tube placement, an indwelling urinary catheter is not typically needed or relevant to the care provided. Chest tube placement is primarily concerned with managing pleural effusion or pneumothorax, and urinary catheterization is not directly related to this procedure. Oxygen, sterile water, and enclosed hemostat clamps are commonly used items in the care of a client with a chest tube in place, to ensure proper oxygenation, maintain drainage system integrity, and manage any bleeding that may occur. Therefore, the indwelling urinary catheter should not be available in the client's room following chest tube placement.

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