Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...

• A. On the client's skin
• B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
• C. Under the client's tongue
• D. On the client's conjunctiva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.

2. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

3. A client complains of difficulty swallowing when the nurse tries to administer capsule medication. Which of the following measures should the nurse take?

• A. Dissolve the capsule in a glass of water
• B. Break the capsule and give the contents with applesauce
• C. Check the availability of a liquid preparation
• D. Crush the capsule and place it under the tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has difficulty swallowing capsule medication, the nurse should check the availability of a liquid preparation. This is a safer approach and ensures that the medication's integrity is maintained, providing an alternative form that is easier for the client to take. Dissolving the capsule in water (choice A) may alter the medication's effectiveness, breaking the capsule and mixing the contents with applesauce (choice B) is not recommended as it may cause an unpleasant taste, and crushing the capsule and placing it under the tongue (choice D) can be unsafe and affect the medication's absorption.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

5. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

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