Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

2. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?

• A. 54
• B. 96
• C. 150
• D. 246

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.

3. If a patient asks the nurse for her opinion about a particular physician and the nurse replies that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for:

• A. Slander
• B. Libel
• C. Assault
• D. Respondent superior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse makes a false verbal statement about the physician being incompetent, it is considered slander. Slander is the act of making defamatory spoken statements or gestures. Libel, on the other hand, refers to defamatory statements that are written or published. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, and respondent superior is a legal doctrine holding an employer responsible for the actions of an employee in the course of employment.

4. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?

• A. Fowler’s position
• B. Side-lying
• C. Supine
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.

5. During discharge teaching, a client informs the nurse about a new prescription for prednisone for asthma. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding in teaching?

• A. I will decrease my fluid intake while taking this medication.
• B. I will expect to have black, tarry stools.
• C. I will take my medication with meals.
• D. I will monitor for weight loss while on this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking prednisone with meals can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset and irritation. It is important for the client to understand how to take the medication correctly to maximize its effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. Monitoring for weight loss or changes in stools may be important but does not directly relate to the administration of the medication with meals.

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