Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

2. Which instrument is used for auscultation?

• A. Percussion hammer
• B. Audiometer
• C. Stethoscope
• D. Sphygmomanometer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation involves listening to internal sounds in the body, such as heart and lung sounds. The instrument used for auscultation is a stethoscope, which allows healthcare providers to listen to these sounds. The percussion hammer is used to elicit sounds on the body, the audiometer is used to measure hearing ability, and the sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Stethoscope.'

3. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?

• A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
• B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
• C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
• D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.

4. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
• C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
• D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.

5. During a shift change, a nurse is receiving a report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?

• A. High platelets
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower platelets
• D. High temperatures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lower platelets can indicate a potential risk of bleeding in a postoperative client. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, can lead to increased bleeding tendencies and should be promptly reported to the healthcare team for appropriate management. Monitoring platelet levels is crucial in postoperative care to prevent complications related to inadequate clotting ability.

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