Nursing Elites

1. For a rectal examination, the patient can be directed to assume which of the following positions?

• A. Genupectoral
• B. Sims
• C. Horizontal recumbent
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a rectal examination is the Sims position, where the patient lies on their left side with the upper knee flexed. This position allows for easy access and visualization of the rectal area for examination.

2. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...

• A. On the client's skin
• B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
• C. Under the client's tongue
• D. On the client's conjunctiva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.

3. A nurse is talking with another nurse on the unit and smells alcohol on her breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Confront the nurse about the suspected alcohol use.
• B. Inform another nurse on the unit about the suspected alcohol use.
• C. Ask the nurse to finish administering medications and then go home.
• D. Notify the nursing manager about the suspected alcohol use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Confronting the nurse about the suspected alcohol use is the most appropriate action in this situation. It is essential to address the issue directly and express concerns about patient safety and potential impairment. By addressing the situation promptly, the nurse can potentially prevent harm and provide support to the colleague in need.

4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

5. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
• B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
• C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
• D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

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