ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare professional must verify the client’s identity before the administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?
- A. Ask the client for their name
- B. Check the client’s identification band
- C. State the client’s name aloud and ask the client to repeat it
- D. Check the room number
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's identity before administering medication is crucial to ensure patient safety. Checking the client’s identification band is the safest and most reliable method to confirm the client's identity. Identification bands are specifically designed to prevent errors in patient identification and help healthcare professionals administer care to the correct individual. Asking the client for their name (Choice A) may lead to errors if the client is unable to communicate or if there is a language barrier. Stating the client’s name aloud and asking them to repeat it (Choice C) relies on the client's ability to respond accurately. Checking the room number (Choice D) does not directly confirm the client's identity and may lead to errors if multiple patients are in the same room.
2. While teaching a newly hired nurse about varicella, a nurse in a pediatric clinic should include which of the following information?
- A. Children who have varicella are contagious until vesicles are crusted.
- B. Children who have varicella should receive the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.
- C. Children who have varicella should be placed in airborne precautions.
- D. Children who have varicella are contagious 1-2 days before the rash appears.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Children with varicella (chickenpox) are contagious until all vesicles are crusted over. The contagious period starts 1-2 days before the rash appears and continues until all lesions are dried and crusted. It is important to educate healthcare providers about the contagious period to prevent the spread of the virus to susceptible individuals.
3. When preparing to administer eye drops to a school-age child, what actions should a nurse take?
- A. 52341
- B. 53241
- C. 35241
- D. 14325
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence for administering eye drops to a school-age child is as follows: 5. Place the child in a sitting position, 2. Ask the child to look upward, 3. Pull the lower eyelid downward, 4. Instill the drops of medication, and 1. Apply pressure to the lacrimal punctum. Placing the child in a sitting position helps with stability and ease of access. Asking the child to look upward helps expose the conjunctival sac. Pulling the lower eyelid downward creates a pouch for instilling the drops. Instilling the drops of medication directly into the pouch ensures proper administration, and applying pressure to the lacrimal punctum prevents systemic absorption and promotes local action of the medication.
4. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
5. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
- B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
- C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
- D. Initiate IV access.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.
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