ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?
- A. Fowler’s position
- B. Side-lying
- C. Supine
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.
2. Which action would break sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?
- A. Using sterile forceps instead of sterile gloves to handle a sterile item
- B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
- C. Placing a sterile object at the edge of the sterile field
- D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring it into a sterile container
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves can introduce contaminants and compromise the sterility of the item. It is crucial to maintain strict adherence to sterile technique to prevent infections and ensure patient safety during procedures.
3. Which of the following parameters should be checked when assessing respirations?
- A. Rate
- B. Rhythm
- C. Symmetry
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing respirations, it is essential to evaluate the rate at which breaths are taken, the rhythm of breathing patterns, and the symmetry of chest expansion. Each of these parameters provides valuable information about a person's respiratory status. Therefore, it is important to assess all of the listed parameters to have a comprehensive understanding of the individual's respiratory function.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?
- A. Confusion
- B. Pale skin
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.
5. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?
- A. Administer antibiotics
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Administer antiviral medications
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.
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