Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has experienced a left-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Impulse control difficulty
• B. Poor judgement
• C. Inability to recognize familiar objects
• D. Loss of depth perception

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who have experienced a left-hemispheric stroke may exhibit symptoms of agnosia, which is the inability to recognize familiar objects or people. This occurs due to damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, which is responsible for visual and spatial perception. Impulse control difficulty, poor judgment, and loss of depth perception are not typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes.

3. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Cool, moist skin
• D. Incisional pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.

4. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?

• A. Non-rebreather mask
• B. Venturi mask
• C. Nasal cannula
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.

5. Which of the following actions should be taken to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair?

• A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift
• B. Face the client, bend knees, and place hands on the client’s forearm and lift
• C. Spread the feet apart
• D. Tighten the pelvic muscles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spread the feet apart. When assisting a client to get up in a chair, it is crucial to use a wide base of support to maintain stability and prevent injuries. Spreading the feet apart provides a broader base, increasing balance and support for both the client and the caregiver. This position helps distribute the weight evenly and allows for better control when assisting the client in moving. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bending at the waist, placing arms under the client's arms, tightening pelvic muscles, or placing hands on the client's forearm do not provide the necessary wide base support needed for stability and safety during the transfer process.

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