Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

2. A client is being instructed on how to perform pursed-lip breathing. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Take quick breaths upon inhalation.
• B. Place your hand over your stomach.
• C. Take a deep breath in through your nose.
• D. Puff your cheeks upon exhalation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a breathing technique that involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling gently through pursed lips. This technique helps improve breathing efficiency and can be beneficial for individuals with respiratory conditions. Instructing the client to take a deep breath in through the nose is essential for proper execution of pursed-lip breathing, making choice C the correct answer.

3. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

4. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

5. All of the following interventions are correct when using the Z-track method of drug injection except:

• A. Prepare the injection site with alcohol
• B. Use a needle that is at least 1” long
• C. Aspirate for blood before injection
• D. Rub the site vigorously after the injection to promote absorption

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using the Z-track method of drug injection, it is important to prepare the injection site with alcohol to ensure cleanliness, use a needle that is at least 1” long to reach the muscle tissue, and aspirate for blood before injection to verify correct needle placement. However, rubbing the site vigorously after the injection is not recommended as it can cause medication to leak into subcutaneous tissue, compromising the medication's intended absorption and efficacy.

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