ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
2. When preparing to administer an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue, what is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication?
- A. Use a small gauge needle
- B. Apply ice on the injection site
- C. Administer at a 45° angle
- D. Use the Z-track technique
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Z-track technique is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication when administering an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. This technique involves pulling the skin to the side before administering the injection and then releasing the skin after the injection. By doing so, a zig-zag pathway is created, preventing the medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue and reducing irritation. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a small gauge needle may not prevent tracking of the medication. Applying ice on the injection site or administering at a 45° angle does not specifically address preventing tracking of the medication in cases where the injection is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue.
3. When caring for a client on pressure support ventilation (PSV), which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of PSV?
- A. It keeps the alveoli open and prevents atelectasis.
- B. It allows preset pressure delivered during spontaneous ventilation.
- C. It guarantees minimal minute ventilator.
- D. It delivers a preset ventilatory rate and tidal volume to the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pressure support ventilation (PSV) is a mode that delivers a preset pressure when the client initiates a breath. This support helps the client to breathe spontaneously by reducing the work of breathing. The correct statement indicating an understanding of PSV is that it allows preset pressure to be delivered during spontaneous ventilation, as it assists the client's efforts without controlling the rate or volume of each breath.
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?
- A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to swallow than water
- B. Fowler’s or semi Fowler’s position reduces the risk of aspiration during swallowing
- C. The patient should always feed himself
- D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The incorrect statement is that 'The patient should always feed himself.' Patients with dysphagia may require assistance with feeding due to difficulty in swallowing safely. It is essential to provide appropriate support and supervision during meal times to prevent complications such as aspiration or inadequate nutrition intake.
5. What is the most common psychogenic disorder among elderly individuals?
- A. Depression
- B. Sleep disturbances (e.g., bizarre dreams)
- C. Inability to concentrate
- D. Decreased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Depression is the most common psychogenic disorder among elderly individuals. It can manifest as persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyed. Elderly individuals may also experience changes in appetite, sleep disturbances, and difficulty concentrating. Detecting and addressing depression in the elderly is crucial for their overall well-being and quality of life.
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