ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
2. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
3. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
- B. Using a water or air mattress
- C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
- D. Providing meticulous skin care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.
4. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?
- A. Cardiac Board Room
- B. Complete Bathroom
- C. Complete Bed Rest
- D. Complete Board Room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.
5. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on performing a routine assessment of a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Apply a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted.
- B. Monitor ventilator settings every 8 hours.
- C. Document tube placement in centimeters at the angle of the jaw.
- D. Assess breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours is crucial in monitoring the client's respiratory status and identifying any potential complications promptly. Monitoring ventilator settings every 8 hours is important for overall ventilation management. Documenting the endotracheal tube placement accurately is essential to ensure proper positioning. Using a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted is not a recommended intervention as it can lead to complications and should be avoided.
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