the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024

1. What is the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultation allows the healthcare provider to listen for bowel sounds, followed by percussion to assess for areas of tenderness or abnormal distention, and finally palpation to feel for masses or organ enlargement. This sequence ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of the abdomen.

2. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

4. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.

5. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

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