ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen?
- A. Tympanic percussion, measurement of abdominal girth, and inspection
- B. Assessment for distention, tenderness, and discoloration around the umbilicus
- C. Percussion, palpation, and auscultation
- D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultation allows the healthcare provider to listen for bowel sounds, followed by percussion to assess for areas of tenderness or abnormal distention, and finally palpation to feel for masses or organ enlargement. This sequence ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of the abdomen.
2. When caring for a client who speaks a language different from their own, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Request an interpreter of a different sex from the client.
- B. Request a family member or friend to interpret information for the client.
- C. Direct attention toward the interpreter when speaking to the client.
- D. Review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client who speaks a different language, it is essential for the nurse to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. Using a professional interpreter ensures accurate communication and protects the client's confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a specific sex or relying on family members or friends can lead to miscommunication or breaches of confidentiality. Directing attention towards the interpreter helps facilitate communication but does not address the need for a professional interpreter as per facility policy.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased creatinine.
- B. Increased hemoglobin.
- C. Increased bicarbonate.
- D. Increased calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to an accumulation of creatinine. Creatinine levels are commonly elevated in individuals with impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator of kidney health. Therefore, an increased creatinine level would be an expected finding in a client with chronic kidney disease.
4. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
5. A client is receiving vecuronium for acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering with this medication?
- A. Fentanyl
- B. Furosemide
- C. Famotidine
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during mechanical ventilation. When administering vecuronium, it is common to also give an opioid analgesic, such as fentanyl, to manage pain and ensure the patient's comfort. Fentanyl is often used in combination with neuromuscular blocking agents to provide balanced anesthesia, making it the appropriate medication to anticipate administering in this scenario.
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