ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals
1. When a chest tube is accidentally removed from a client, which of the following actions should the nurse NOT take first?
- A. Obtain a chest x-ray
- B. Apply sterile gauze to the insertion site
- C. Place tape around the insertion site
- D. Assess respiratory status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a chest tube is accidentally removed, the priority action for the nurse is to immediately seal the insertion site with a gloved hand, a sterile occlusive dressing, or petroleum gauze to prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. Applying sterile gauze to the insertion site is not the correct initial action. The first step is to prevent respiratory compromise by ensuring the site is sealed. Therefore, the nurse should not apply sterile gauze to the insertion site first.
2. During the assessment of a client receiving packed RBCs, which finding indicates fluid overload?
- A. Low back pain.
- B. Dyspnea.
- C. Hypotension.
- D. Thready pulse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dyspnea is a key finding indicating fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. Fluid overload can lead to pulmonary edema, causing difficulty breathing or shortness of breath (dyspnea). Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload but can be more related to musculoskeletal issues. Hypotension and thready pulse are more indicative of hypovolemia (low fluid volume), not fluid overload.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?
- A. A client who has a BMI of 30
- B. A female client who is postmenopausal
- C. A client who has a fractured femur
- D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.
4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
5. What is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?
- A. Intramuscular
- B. Intradermal
- C. Subcutaneous
- D. Intravenous
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate route of administration for insulin is subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are commonly used for insulin administration due to the slower absorption rate compared to intramuscular or intravenous routes. This slower absorption rate allows for better control of blood glucose levels. Intramuscular administration is not ideal for insulin as it can lead to rapid absorption and fluctuations in blood sugar levels. Intradermal injections are shallow and used for skin testing rather than insulin administration. Intravenous administration of insulin is not recommended due to the rapid and unpredictable effects it can have on blood glucose levels.
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