ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?
- A. Administer antibiotics
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Administer antiviral medications
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.
2. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.
3. Which deficiency is most commonly seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder?
- A. Thiamine
- B. Riboflavin
- C. Pyridoxine
- D. Pantothenic acid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, is the most common vitamin deficiency seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to decreased thiamine absorption and utilization, as well as poor dietary intake. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological complications, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, making it essential to address thiamine supplementation in individuals with alcohol use disorder.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
5. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.
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