Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased creatinine.
• B. Increased hemoglobin.
• C. Increased bicarbonate.
• D. Increased calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to an accumulation of creatinine. Creatinine levels are commonly elevated in individuals with impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator of kidney health. Therefore, an increased creatinine level would be an expected finding in a client with chronic kidney disease.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to measure an infant's temperature. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Place the tip of the thermometer under the center of the infant's axilla
• B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
• C. Insert the probe 3.8 cm (1.5in) into the infant's rectum
• D. Insert the thermometer in front of the infant's tongue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When measuring an infant's temperature, the most appropriate and non-invasive method is to place the tip of the thermometer under the center of the infant's axilla (armpit). This method is safe, quick, and comfortable for the infant. Inserting the probe into the rectum is invasive and not recommended for routine temperature measurement in infants. Inserting the thermometer in front of the infant's tongue is not a reliable method for measuring temperature. Pulling the pinna of the ear forward is a technique used for adults, not infants.

3. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:

• A. 0.6 mg
• B. 10 mg
• C. 60 mg
• D. 600 mg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

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