ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Deviation of the trachea
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.
3. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?
- A. Side rails are ineffective
- B. Side rails should not be used
- C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevents a patient from falling out of bed
- D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct conclusion drawn from the study is that side rails serve as a reminder to the patient not to get out of bed rather than being a fail-proof preventive measure against falls. While they may not entirely prevent falls, they play a role in prompting the patient to be cautious when moving.
4. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school-age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give?
- A. Administer the feeding over 30 minutes
- B. Place the child in a supine position after the feeding
- C. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days
- D. Warm the formula in a warm water bath before administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the feeding over 30 minutes helps prevent complications such as aspiration. Placing the child in an upright position after the feeding is recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration. It is essential to change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days to maintain asepsis and prevent infections. Warming the formula in a warm water bath is the correct method as using a microwave can create hot spots that may burn the child's mouth or throat.
5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?
- A. Have suction equipment available for use
- B. Feed the client thickened liquids
- C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
- D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.
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