Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?

• A. Assessing clot formation potential
• B. Assessing bleeding risk
• C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
• D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis and has been placed on a multi-medication regimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client related to ethambutol?

• A. Your urine can turn a dark orange.
• B. Watch for a change in the sclera of your eyes.
• C. Watch for any changes in vision.
• D. Take vitamin B6 daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with potential vision changes, including optic neuritis. Patients should be instructed to report any visual disturbances immediately to prevent permanent vision loss. Monitoring for changes in vision is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on and prevent serious complications.

3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

4. When caring for a client on pressure support ventilation (PSV), which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of PSV?

• A. It keeps the alveoli open and prevents atelectasis.
• B. It allows preset pressure delivered during spontaneous ventilation.
• C. It guarantees minimal minute ventilator.
• D. It delivers a preset ventilatory rate and tidal volume to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressure support ventilation (PSV) is a mode that delivers a preset pressure when the client initiates a breath. This support helps the client to breathe spontaneously by reducing the work of breathing. The correct statement indicating an understanding of PSV is that it allows preset pressure to be delivered during spontaneous ventilation, as it assists the client's efforts without controlling the rate or volume of each breath.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?

• A. Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
• B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
• C. Ask the client to state their blood type and the date of their last blood donation
• D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.

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