Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?

• A. Assessing clot formation potential
• B. Assessing bleeding risk
• C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
• D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.

2. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

3. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Administer antiviral medications
• D. Administer bronchodilators

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.

4. A client has global aphasia affecting both receptive and expressive language abilities. Which intervention should NOT be included in the client's care plan?

• A. Speak to the client at a slower rate.
• B. Assist the client in using flash cards with pictures.
• C. Speak to the client in a loud voice.
• D. Give instructions one step at a time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with global aphasia have difficulty understanding and expressing language. Speaking loudly may not improve comprehension and can be perceived as aggressive. Therefore, it is important not to speak loudly to a client with global aphasia. Speaking at a slower rate, using visual aids like flash cards, and breaking down instructions into simple steps can facilitate communication and understanding for the client.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

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