ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?
- A. Cardiac Board Room
- B. Complete Bathroom
- C. Complete Bed Rest
- D. Complete Board Room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.
2. A client has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis and has been placed on a multi-medication regimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client related to ethambutol?
- A. Your urine can turn a dark orange.
- B. Watch for a change in the sclera of your eyes.
- C. Watch for any changes in vision.
- D. Take vitamin B6 daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with potential vision changes, including optic neuritis. Patients should be instructed to report any visual disturbances immediately to prevent permanent vision loss. Monitoring for changes in vision is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on and prevent serious complications.
3. A client is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
- C. Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux.
- D. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and cause uterine irritability, potentially leading to preterm contractions. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of adequate hydration to reduce the risk of preterm labor. The statement 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor' directly addresses the client's condition and provides relevant information for their understanding and management of the situation.
4. During a seizure, what is the primary intervention?
- A. Protect the patient from injury
- B. Insert an airway
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Withdraw all pain medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary intervention during a seizure is to protect the patient from injury. This involves creating a safe environment by moving harmful objects away, cushioning the head, and staying with the patient until the seizure ends. Inserting an airway is only necessary if the patient's airway is obstructed, not routinely during a seizure. Elevating the head of the bed is not a priority during an active seizure as it won't affect the seizure's outcome. Withdrawing all pain medications is not a standard practice unless there are specific contraindications related to the seizure itself.
5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?
- A. Have suction equipment available for use
- B. Feed the client thickened liquids
- C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
- D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.
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