Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

2. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

3. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?

• A. Non-rebreather mask
• B. Venturi mask
• C. Nasal cannula
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.

4. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours.
• B. Place the client in a supine position while resting.
• C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours.
• D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, cardiac rehabilitation is crucial for the client's recovery. It helps improve the client's overall cardiovascular health, reduces the risk of future cardiac events, and promotes a healthy lifestyle. The other options do not directly address the importance of cardiac rehabilitation in the client's recovery process.

5. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?

• A. Optic
• B. Olfactory
• C. Oculomotor
• D. Trochlear

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.

Similar Questions