ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals
1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
2. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.
3. Which of the following substances increase the amount of urine produced?
- A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola
- B. Beets
- C. Urinary analgesics
- D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine production by promoting the excretion of water from the body through the kidneys. Therefore, substances like caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola, can lead to an increase in the amount of urine produced.
4. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Cool, moist skin
- D. Incisional pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?
- A. Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
- B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
- C. Ask the client to state their blood type and the date of their last blood donation
- D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.
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