Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

2. A client with tuberculosis is receiving a new prescription for isoniazid (INH). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. You might notice yellowing of your skin.
• B. You might experience pain in your joints.
• C. You might notice tingling of your hands.
• D. You might experience loss of appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling of the hands is a common adverse effect of isoniazid (INH) due to its potential to cause peripheral neuropathy. This sensation can be an early sign of nerve damage, and thus, the client should be instructed to report it promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

3. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?

• A. Less than 30 ml/hour
• B. 64 ml in 2 hours
• C. 90 ml in 3 hours
• D. 125 ml in 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.

4. According to the principles of standard precautions, when should gloves be worn by healthcare providers?

• A. Providing a back massage
• B. Feeding a client
• C. Providing hair care
• D. Providing oral hygiene

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gloves should be worn when providing oral hygiene as it involves potential exposure to bodily fluids, aligning with the standard precautions to prevent the transmission of infections. Providing a back massage, feeding a client, and providing hair care do not typically involve direct exposure to bodily fluids, so wearing gloves is not necessary in these scenarios according to standard precautions.

5. A client with fibromyalgia requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Pregabalin
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Colchicine
• D. Codeine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pregabalin is commonly used to manage pain associated with fibromyalgia. It works by reducing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, not pain management. Colchicine is primarily used for gout treatment, and codeine, while an analgesic, is not typically the first-line choice for fibromyalgia pain due to its potential for side effects and misuse.

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