Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

2. Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an infection?

• A. A patient with leukopenia
• B. A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
• C. A postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery
• D. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Leukopenia, characterized by low white blood cell count, significantly reduces the body's ability to fight infections. Patients with leukopenia are at a higher risk of contracting infections due to compromised immune defenses.

3. A caregiver is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The caregiver asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?

• A. Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears
• B. Your baby needs an IV because her fontanels are bulging
• C. Your baby needs an IV because she is breathing slower than normal
• D. Your baby needs an IV because her heart rate is decreasing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears.' In infants, the inability to produce tears is a sign of severe dehydration. This is a crucial indication for the need for intravenous (IV) fluid therapy to rehydrate the infant. While the other options may also be symptoms of dehydration, the absence of tears is a more direct and specific indicator requiring immediate attention and intervention.

4. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

5. Which type of illness is characterized by severe symptoms of relatively short duration?

• A. Chronic Illness
• B. Acute Illness
• C. Pain
• D. Syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute Illness. Acute illnesses are characterized by the sudden onset of severe symptoms that typically last for a short duration. These conditions usually resolve within a defined period, unlike chronic illnesses that persist over a longer time frame. Choices C and D, Pain and Syndrome, are not specific types of illnesses but rather symptoms or clinical manifestations that can occur in various health conditions.

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