Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

2. A client with vision loss is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse AVOID?

• A. Keep objects in the client's room in the same place
• B. Ensure there is high-wattage lighting in the client's room
• C. Approach the client from the side
• D. Allow extra time for the client to perform tasks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Approaching a client with vision loss from the side can startle them and may lead to accidents or discomfort. It is important to approach them from the front so they are aware of your presence. Keeping objects in the same place aids in familiarity and reduces the risk of falls. High-wattage lighting enhances visibility for the client. Allowing extra time for tasks accommodates the client's potential slower pace and ensures they can perform tasks safely.

3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

4. A client is receiving discharge instructions from a healthcare provider after being prescribed albuterol for COPD. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. Albuterol can increase my blood sugar levels.
• B. Albuterol can decrease my immune response.
• C. I can experience an increase in my heart rate while taking albuterol.
• D. I may develop mouth sores while taking albuterol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat conditions like COPD. One of its common side effects is an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) due to its action on beta-2 receptors in the body. This statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating comprehension of the discharge teaching provided by the healthcare provider.

5. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...

• A. On the client's skin
• B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
• C. Under the client's tongue
• D. On the client's conjunctiva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.

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