a nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who is having an acute asthma attack which of the following assessments indicates that the
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1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

2. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.

3. The healthcare professional must verify the client’s identity before the administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client's identity before administering medication is crucial to ensure patient safety. Checking the client’s identification band is the safest and most reliable method to confirm the client's identity. Identification bands are specifically designed to prevent errors in patient identification and help healthcare professionals administer care to the correct individual. Asking the client for their name (Choice A) may lead to errors if the client is unable to communicate or if there is a language barrier. Stating the client’s name aloud and asking them to repeat it (Choice C) relies on the client's ability to respond accurately. Checking the room number (Choice D) does not directly confirm the client's identity and may lead to errors if multiple patients are in the same room.

4. What is the best description of resonance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Resonance refers to the quality of sound produced by vibrations that are reinforced by other vibrations of the same frequency. In the context of the human body, resonance is often associated with sounds produced by air-filled structures like the lungs, vocal cords, and resonating cavities. Therefore, the best description of resonance from the given options is 'Sounds created by air-filled structures.' This choice aligns with the concept of resonance as it relates to sound production in the human body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to the concept of resonance or its association with air-filled structures.

5. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives due to an increased risk of thromboembolism. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolic disorders should avoid oral contraceptives to prevent further complications like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

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