a nurse is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client which of the following actions should the nurse take to identify the client
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.

2. A client has a new prescription for heparin therapy. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate an immediate concern for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement 'I take antacids several times a day.' Antacids can alter the absorption of heparin, potentially affecting its effectiveness and increasing the risk of clot formation. This is a significant concern as it can impact the therapeutic outcome of heparin therapy. The other statements are not directly related to potential complications or interactions with heparin therapy.

3. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.

4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

5. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

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