ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
- C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
- D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
2. A patient presents with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:
- A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions.
- B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough.
- C. Ineffective individual coping with COPD.
- D. Pain related to immobilization of affected leg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough all point towards a potential airway clearance issue. This makes option A, 'Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions,' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. It directly addresses the thick secretions and suggests a potential cause of the breathing difficulty the patient is experiencing.
3. A healthcare provider reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3-month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The healthcare provider could be charged with:
- A. Defamation
- B. Assault
- C. Battery
- D. Malpractice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The scenario described involves a breach of duty by the healthcare provider to properly supervise the infant, resulting in harm. This failure to meet the standard of care falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or misconduct. Malpractice specifically applies to situations where a healthcare provider's actions or omissions deviate from the accepted standard of care, causing harm to a patient. In this case, the nurse's lack of supervision leading to the infant falling off the scale and sustaining a skull fracture would be considered malpractice.
4. During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to assume which position?
- A. Sitting
- B. Standing
- C. Genupectoral
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to stand with feet together and arms at the sides. The test evaluates proprioception and vestibular function by assessing the patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed. Asking the patient to stand helps to detect any balance issues or disturbances in the absence of visual input.
5. During a shift change, a nurse is receiving a report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?
- A. High platelets
- B. Hypertension
- C. Lower platelets
- D. High temperatures
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lower platelets can indicate a potential risk of bleeding in a postoperative client. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, can lead to increased bleeding tendencies and should be promptly reported to the healthcare team for appropriate management. Monitoring platelet levels is crucial in postoperative care to prevent complications related to inadequate clotting ability.
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